There wasn;t gun control in the South in the 1950s and 1960s - yet a central government came in and forced people (arguably a large majority) and states to submit against their will. Why?
I think part of the answer (maybe not the most important part) lies in the fact that the federal government had so much more power - brute physical power.
And don;t get me wrong - I am not arguing that people do not have the right to bear arms. I am questioning the idea of why we have that right.