I ran across this trying to figure out if guns are more or less accessible today than in colonial times. Not really what I was looking for, but it seems they are likely more expensive now than then.I guess this is where i get hung up.
"bear arms" - it was written in 1776. 200 years have passed and the arms spoken of on that day are not the same. So how do we reconcile wording from 200 plus years ago into todays standards? Or do we?
I guess starting at "bear arms" and what that truly meant THEN vs NOW. As i understand it, many state that it was so the fledgling US didnt have to have a "Standing army"
Well we have one. A very large and capable one.
So why does that not get taken into consideration when interpreting the 2nd Amendment?
Anyway...
Materiality of a Rifle Gun: Gunsmithing at Colonial Williamsburg
When Colonial Williamsburg gunsmith Richard “Sully” Sullivan instructed us to feel the weight of his completed work by holding an unloaded rifle as if to shoot, my classmate leaned the butt into he…
sites.udel.edu
Makes sense and is reasonable, but yeah times have massively changed.Beginning in 1684, the militia statute required all freemen to own and train with a gun so that they would be properly outfitted and practiced should the need for a militia arise. As a result, gun ownership for white households was mandatory in many territories. Additionally, guns served as an important hunting tool that helped to secure meat, in addition to providing protection if communities were attacked by Native Americans. Thus, in the back country where raids were more common and merchant-sold food was hard to come by, most families had at least one firearm; in urban areas their presence would be more limited.
If there was a way to allow citizens in an area to vote to suspend 2A in certain areas, I think cities and rural areas would be well served. That way, folks could live where the laws suited them best.
Pretty sure that was a guiding principle of the country at one point. Perhaps too much is federal now.