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is your wife referred to as "Mrs. SystemShock"?What's the difference between an "employed person" and an "employee" ?
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is your wife referred to as "Mrs. SystemShock"?What's the difference between an "employed person" and an "employee" ?
You're gonna want to read up on verbals and get back to me.
Yes, it is.This isn't an equivalent argument.
The question should be "What is the difference between the relationship between 'employed person' and 'employee' versus the relationship between 'enslaved person' and 'slave'"?
The reason we're not changing "employee" to "employed person" but we are changing "slave" to "enslaved person" is because of the differences in power, agency, and historical context.
And employed person is an employee, an slaved person is a slave.
You're gonna want to read up on nuance and get back to me.Slavery already denotes a condition forced upon an individual. Changing "slave" to "enslaved person" doesn't change anything.
please explain
Sounds like someone who read up on verbals and realized that he was completely incorrect.Nah, not really.
It is not.false equivalency
There is no such implicationin both there is the implication of choice on both sides
You're gonna want to read up on nuance and get back to me.
you haven't addressed the "Mrs SystemShock" questionIt is not.
There is no such implication
I reiterate, slavery already denotes a forced condition upon an individual.
is your wife referred to as "Mrs. SystemShock"?
You say "intellectually disabled/challenged" or you still drop R bombs?Serves me right for replying to you.
You're gonna want to read up on the definition of slavery and get back to me.
Because one word does not effectively communicate the desired empathetic nuance and historical context in today's perspective on slavery. Language evolves. It's why we've gone from "Indians" to "Native Americans" or even "Indigenous Peoples." One word got across what we were talking about, but there's more effective ways of communicating than relying on the checkered history of "Indians."1) Generally speaking, why use 2 words when 1 will do?
See above. Martin Luther King also frequently referred to black people as "negroes." Language evolves.2) Nobody who uses the word "slave" in a history class describing the slave trade is under the misconception that that status was anything other than involuntary. It an unnecessary and muddying reformulation of an easily understood concept that, in this case, creates a distraction from the topic and tries to catch the speaker out. It seems to assume that one supports the institution of slavery by using the word "slave," which is, indeed, silly. Michelle Obama repeatedly used to refer to the WH as "a house built by slaves."
Being introduced to new ideas only creates anti-progressive tendencies if you refuse to consider that you might still have yet more to learn.As it relates to my kid, its another PC moment that sent his eyes rolling to the back of his head. His school is unintentionally creating a crop of anti-progressives (not sure what term to use - MAGA, conservative, anti-PC).
You say "intellectually disabled/challenged" or you still drop R bombs?
you haven't addressed the "Mrs SystemShock" question
you are saying there is no difference between "the wife of SystemShock" and "Mrs SystemShock" and the last 50 years tells you you are incorrect - people (not just women) have seen a profound difference in those two phrases